Which IIQ version are you inquiring about?
Version 8.3
Share all details related to your problem, including any error messages you may have received.
We currently don’t have owners defined for our entitlements and had approvals turned off. We now have an instance where someone wants a specific security group to have to have an approval when it is requested through SailPoint. Here’s what I did to try to achieve this:
- Added an owner to an entitlement
- Made a copy of the LCM Provisioning Business Process. In this copy I unticked the “Disable Approvals” and added “Owner” as approver. I cleared out the “Fallback Approver” as I don’t want any entitlements that don’t have owners to have to be approved.
- In Lifecycle Manager > Business Process > Request Access, I put the copy of the business process I created.
- Test
The results of my test were that the owner of the entitlement got an approval request which was what I wanted, however, when I requested entitlements that didn’t have an owner, the fallback went to spadmin. This was not what I expected to happen since I had removed Fallback Approver.
When I looked through the Business Process I saw that it was calling the “Provisioning Approval Subprocess” so I took a look at that code. It seems that subprocess ignores the fallback approver defined in the original process and automatically assigns spadmin to the approval:
<Variable initializer="spadmin" input="true" name="fallbackApprover">
<Description>
A String that specifies the name of the Identity that will
be assigned any approvals where the owner of the approver
can't be resolved. Example if the scheme is "owner" and the
application doesn't specify and owner.
</Description>
</Variable>
I would have expected this to follow the fallback approver of the originating process but it isn’t.
So here are my questions:
- Have I read this all correctly?
- Is this expected behavior or is this a bug that no one runs into because it’s an odd case?
- Would the way to solve this be to copy this subprocess removing the initializer and then reference the new subprocess in my copied business process or is there another way that would be preferable/more correct?
Thanks for any insight you can provide.